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HOUSMAIL HM116 11
June 2004 THE GREEK PRESENT
TENSE IN ROMANS 7 Recently,
I "tripped over" the following reference to the use of the GREEK PRESENT
TENSE, in Thayer's Greek Lexicon, attached to the ONLINE Bible. If you
have this excellent computer Bible, you can find it for yourself by enabling the
Strong’s references, and then looking up 5744, and then selecting 5774. For
those with "ears to hear", it goes a long way to increasing our understanding
of the meaning of this much disputed passage in Romans 7. Receive it if you will! GREEK
PRESENT TENSE From
Thayer’s Greek Lexicon in the Online Bible The
present tense represents a simple statement of fact or reality viewed as occurring
in actual time. In most cases this corresponds directly with the English present
tense. Some
phrases which might be rendered as past tense in English will often occur in the
present tense in Greek. These are termed "historical presents",
and such occurrences dramatize the event described as if the reader were there
watching the event occur. Some English translations render such historical presents
in the English past tense, while others permit the tense to remain in the present. This
use of the "historical present tense", is NOT unique to Greek. It is
also often used by English writers for the same purpose. i.e. to dramatize a past
event by describing it in the present tense, as if the reader is present
with the writer, watching it happen. It explains
Paul’s use of the present tense in Romans 7:13-25 -- where to careful readers, it seems quite clear that he is speaking
about his FORMER enslavement to "SIN". Of course "SIN" is
NOT a literal person. However in Romans 6 Paul personifies "sin" as a slave master
and owner of those who have "sold" themselves into bondage by committing
sin. (Isaiah 50:1, Romans 6:16-17, Romans 7:14) It does
NOT seem possible that some 14 years after his conversion, the man who has been
pardoned and freed from condemnation, as described in Romans 8:1-16, can be speaking in Chapter 7 of his PRESENT status
in Christ. It makes much more sense to view Romans
7 as describing Paul’s long past "conversion
experience". It should also describe our own response to the Gospel when
we heard it, were convicted of our sins, and began to believe. Praise
God! Romans 8 contrasts THAT former
hopeless condition, with what should be the present status of the redeemed. If
we are truly "in the spirit" we should be experiencing true life, rather
than the "carnal, sold under sin" (Romans 6:20, Romans 6:23, Romans 7:14) life "in the flesh" which can never please
God. (Romans 8:8) And
Praise God again! It also points us to the personal victory over sin which should
be the developing experience of true Disciples indwelt and led by the Spirit of
God. (Romans 8:12-17) CONCLUSION Paul's
use of the present tense in Romans 7, is a Greek "historical present tense" which
can quite validly be translated into English as PAST TENSE! Allon |